“As King James has written in his new Bible,
thou shalt not suffer a witch to live.”
Doctor Who S11 E8, ‘The Witchfinders’ (2018)
The oldest complete
manuscripts of the New Testament we have date from the mid-fourth century. You
can go and see one of them, Codex Sinaiticus, in the British Library (well,
most of it);1 it’s called Sinaiticus because it was held at St.
Catherine’s monastery in Sinai, such that it only came to the attention of the
scholarly world in the nineteenth century. The other one, Codex Vaticanus, has been
in the Vatican library since at least the fifteenth century, but nobody really
twigged how important it was and published it properly until, again, the
nineteenth century. That’s it for fourth-century manuscripts; from the fifth
century, one major one we have is Codex Ephraemi Rescriptus; it gets its name
(literally ‘rewritten codex of Ephrem’) from the fact that the Biblical text was
erased and the pages reused for a Greek translation of some treatises by a
big-deal Syriac theologion called Ephrem. A manuscript like this, with more
than one layer of text, is called a palimpsest, and often takes some work to
decipher the underlayer: the undertext of Codex Ephraemi Rescriptus wasn’t
fully deciphered until, you guessed it, the nineteenth century. And the last of
the four great uncial manuscripts is Codex Alexandrinus, also fifth-century, which,
after spells in Alexandria (whence its name) and Constantinople, was given as a
present to King James I.
A bit of Codex Vaticanus - Matthew 8 if the caption on Wikimedia Commons is to be believed (I couldn’t be bothered to read it to check). |
So was it used in the
preparation of the King James version, then, you ask? Well, no: King James
received it in 1624, more than a decade after the KJV hit the shelves in 1611.
In short, of the four earliest complete New Testament manuscripts we have, none
were available to the translators responsible for the Authorised version.
What’s more, if we
consider also incomplete manuscripts, there are a whole bunch of papyri preserving
small sections of the New Testament that are even earlier. The earliest NT
manuscript, as scholars generally reckon it based on palaeography, is P52 (also
known as Rylands Greek P457): it preserves a tiny chunk of the gospel of John and
it’s widely considered to date from the second century. Just think of that:
somebody sat down and wrote it probably less than a hundred and fifty years
after Jesus had actually been walking about on Planet Earth, and now you can go
and gawp at it in the John Rylands library in Manchester. There are loads of
third- and fourth-century papyri too – fragments the lot of them, but still
really valuable sources.2 Once again, however, all this stuff was
just sitting unknown in old rubbish dumps in Egypt until a pair of scholars
called Grenfell and Hunt went and dug it up … guess when … yup, in the
nineteenth century.3
So if the KJV translators
didn’t have any of our oldest New Testament manuscripts, what were they
working from? Well, that would be a little something scholars like to call the Textus
Receptus (‘received text’). You might have heard of a chap called Erasmus
who published the first printed edition of the Greek New Testament in 1519; one
gets the impression that he was actually far more interested in publishing the
Latin New Testament that he put with it, but it was the Greek edition that
proved the biggest hit. Subsequent Greek New Testaments, including Robert
Stephanus’ (whose influence can be seen very strongly in modern Bibles, because
he was the first to introduce chapter and verse numbers), generally followed
Erasmus’ text pretty closely rather than drawing on independent research – and that’s
how we get this consistent and recognisable entity called the Textus
Receptus.
You’ll be wondering,
then, if everyone was drawing so heavily on Erasmus, where was he getting
his version of the text from? Well, from such manuscripts as he could get his
hands on at the time. And what we can tell about the manuscripts he could get
his hands on at the time is that, as well as being later than the four great
uncials I mentioned above,4 they followed a different textual
tradition to them.
Although divisions of
this sort can get pretty messy, especially when you’re working across multiple
books of scripture, it’s nevertheless the case that by and large, those
earliest complete manuscripts follow a textual tradition called the Alexandrian
text-type, after Codex Alexandrinus, while the Textus Receptus follows a
different one, which goes by many names, but is often called the Byzantine
text-type. It’s also known as the ‘majority text’, because once you start bringing
later manuscripts into the equation, a big (and I mean big) majority of them
follow this text-type. (The papyri are often too fragmentary to be reliably
classified as one text-type or another.) You see the issue, then: do we follow
the tradition reflected in the oldest manuscripts under the assumption that the
older they are, the closer they’re likely to be to the ‘original’; or do we
follow the tradition reflected in the most manuscripts, under the
assumption that the more witnesses you have to a reading, the more likely it is
to be accurate?
Now don’t get me wrong:
the differences between the two traditions aren’t ginormous. It’s not as if one
tradition says Jesus never died on the cross or adds in a whole extra section
about his troubled teenage years or something; in most cases where the two
differ, there’s minimal impact on the meaning of the text. To illustrate, with
differences picked out by underlining:
Matthew 15:5-6
Alexandrian text: But you guys say: Whoever says to his
father or mother: What you might have been helped by from me is a gift (to
God), shall not honour his father; and you guys treated the word of God
as of no effect on account of your tradition.
Byzantine text: But you guys say: Whoever says to his
father or mother: What you might have been helped by from me is a gift (to
God), shall not honour his father or mother; and you guys treated the law
of God as of no effect on account of your tradition.
Luke 24:53
Alexandrian text: And they were continually in the temple
blessing God.
Byzantine text: And they were continually in the
temple praising and blessing God.
Not that big of a deal,
right? But not all the differences are so negligible. Here are a couple of
examples that people get really het up about.
The End of Mark
In the Alexandrian
text-type, the gospel of Mark ends with the women fleeing from the tomb and
saying nothing to anyone. The tomb is empty, and an angel has told them
that Jesus has been raised, but the book ends without any actual appearances of
the resurrected Christ being mentioned. In the Byzantine text-type, there are
an extra twelve verses which recount very briefly Jesus’ appearance to Mary
Magdalene and her reporting it, his appearance to two disciples on a walk (road
to Emmaus?), a third appearance to his disciples including the Great
Commission, the ascension, and the birth of the Church.5
Even apart from the
textual-traditions thing, I can see why people think verses 9-20 are a later
addition: the story resumes slightly awkwardly in verse 9, and what follows
does feel exactly like what you’d get if you distilled down the endings of the
other synoptic gospels into a quick little cap-off to reassure readers of Mark
that the story did in fact end the way they thought it did. But on the other
hand, if you’re going with the accepted theory that Mark was written first and
served as a source for the others, what do you make of him not actually
recording that Jesus really did rise from the dead? Isn’t that, ahem,
kind of an important bit of the story? Was Mark mysteriously struck dead
mid-pen-stroke? Or is he attempting some kind of literary technique? Did the
other gospel writers look at what he’d done and go, oh crikey, he missed a bit,
I’d better write my own version sharpish?
Paul wrote that if Jesus
didn’t rise from the dead, our faith is worthless.6 So how badly do
we need those last twelve verses of Mark? Badly enough to privilege one
manuscript tradition over another?
The Trinity
Compare the following
versions of 1 John 5:7-8:
Alexandrian text: For there are three who bear witness,
the Spirit and the water and the blood, and the three are as one.
Byzantine text: For there are three who bear
witness in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit, and these three
are one; and there are three who bear witness on earth, the Spirit,
the water, and the blood, and the three are as one.
You ever get frustrated
that a doctrine as fundamental as the Trinity is never really made explicit in
scripture? God never says, oh hey guys, by the way, just to be clear, I’m one
God in Trinity and Trinity in Unity, don’t confound the Persons or divide the
Essence; the Godhead of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit is all one,
the glory equal, the majesty coeternal – all clear any questions?7
Nope, we have to piece together the doctrine from the fact that the Father,
Son, and Spirit are all treated as God, and yet God is, very emphatically, one.
Wouldn’t it be nice to have something a bit more concrete to lean on than
merely that tension irresolvable by any other means – something like the
Byzantine form of this verse, for instance?
Again, the text-critic
thing to say here is that the Byzantine version looks like a later addition,
precisely because the doctrine of the Trinity took a little while to develop,
but once it settled into its place among the central tenets of the faith,
someone saw a good opportunity, in a verse already about three things being as
one, to slide in a more explicit reference. But are we happy thinking about the
Trinity in that way – as coming out of later theological development by humans
rather than straight from the scriptures God himself inspired? How badly do we
need the longer form of this verse? Badly enough to insist on only using the
one widely-available English translation of the Bible that works from the
Byzantine tradition, rather than the Alexandrian?
Most modern scholars take
the approach that the Alexandrian tradition, because of the antiquity of its
witnesses, is the most reliable, but they’re also happy to cherry-pick variants
from other traditions if they think they seem more authentic in any particular
instance: so most modern Bible translations end up reflecting what’s called an “eclectic”
underlying text. Passages like last twelve verses of Mark and the longer form
of 1 John 5:7-8 do not typically make the cut as worth including in the main
text. So you can see how someone who takes the view that the majority text is
more reliable might view this as a bit of an attack on some pretty fundamental
Christian doctrine.
What I’ve outlined above
certainly doesn’t account for all the strands and justifications of KJV-Onlyism
that there are out there. The folks who think His Majesty’s translation
committee were legit divinely inspired, for instance, need to calm down. But I
hope I’ve shown why at least some KJV-Onlyists might not be quite as crazy as
you think they are. How badly do we need Mark 16:9-20 as a witness to the
resurrection? How badly do we need the longer version of 1 John 5:7-8 as a
witness to the Trinity? If you conclude that we need them badly enough to keep
them in the main text, the KJV is kind of your only option as far as English
Bible translations go.
If you were wondering
where I stand on all this – well, I dunno, really. And, as annoying a
conclusion as it is, I’m not sure we really need to decide. Elsewhere in
scripture, we don’t construe it as a problem to hold two variants of what’s
essentially the same passage alongside each other, and affirm the truth and
inspired-ness of both; compare Kings and Chronicles, for instance, or certain
NT quotations of OT passages. Maybe Mark is fine with or without its ending,
the presence and absence thereof each achieving a different effect; just as,
say, the imperatives in Isaiah 6:9-10 achieve a different effect to the
indicatives in the NT quotations of it, like Matthew 13:14-15. Maybe we can
think of the theological development that prompted some copyist to add a bit
into 1 John 5:7-8 as akin to, say, the theological development that prompted
some copyist to substitute Satan in 1 Chronicles 21:1 for the LORD in 2 Samuel
24:1, or to miss out any equivalent of the second part of 2 Samuel 7:14 in 1
Chronicles 17:13. Maybe the earlier versions do present theological
problems, and maybe the attempts to solve those problems that we see in the later
versions don’t make said later versions any less valid – any more than the
theological problems they present make the earlier versions any less valid.
Maybe we don’t need to be
scared of this stuff. Maybe we can be confident enough in the gospel revealed
to us by faith to wrestle honestly with the particulars of the scriptures
through which we grow in that faith. Maybe textual variation is a chance to think
harder and push deeper and find a fuller understanding of God.
Or maybe I’m just as
crazy as those KJV-Onlyists. In this as in all things, you can make up your own
mind.
Footnotes
1 Or – particularly in the
present circumstances – you can check it out online: http://codexsinaiticus.org/en/.
2 The Nestle-Aland Novum
Testamentum Graece, https://www.nestle-aland.com/en/home/
– widely considered the best critical edition – comes with handy English
and German guide-sheets to the relative dates of different manuscripts. The
only problem with them is that they keep falling out of the book when you’re
reading it.
3 Again, you can check ’em
out online: http://www.papyrology.ox.ac.uk/POxy/.
4 ‘Four great uncials’ is
a technical term for those four manuscripts; ‘uncial’ means they’re written
purely in capital letters.
5 Take a look for
yourself: https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=mark+16&version=ESVUK.
6 1 Corinthians 15:17.
7 That’s the Athanasian
Creed I’m quoting. Go on, have a cheeky rewatch of St. Patrick’s Bad Analogies,
you deserve it: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=KQLfgaUoQCw.